AMD has just announced a new line of GPUs called the RDNA 3. These new GPUs are based on the company’s latest Polaris architecture and offer significant performance improvements over their predecessors. The RDNA 3 is designed for gaming and professional applications, and offers gamers the ability to enjoy high-end graphics with ease. These GPUs are also available in two different configurations, which allow for a variety of builds and configurations. The first configuration is called the “Polaris Pro,” which offers gamers an amazing 4,000 MHz clock speed and a 256-bit memory interface. This configuration also includes an AMD Radeon RX Vega 56 graphics card with 8GB of GDDR5 memory. The second configuration is called the “Polaris XT,” which offers gamers a much faster clock speed of 1,600 MHz and a 384-bit memory interface. This configuration also includes an AMD Radeon RX Vega 64 graphics card with 16GB of GDDR5 memory. These new GPUs are sure to revolutionize gaming and professional applications, and will be sure to make your experience in these areas much better than ever before.
Right as NVIDIA announced its new GPUs, AMD took the chance to announce the date for its next big GPU event: November 3, 2022. They will be based on the company’s RDNA 3 architecture, and they’ll presumably be sold as the Radeon RX 7000-series if AMD sticks with its current naming scheme.
Among the things that we might see in these new graphics cards, we have a new chiplet design and a 5nm TSMC process node, as well as an optimized graphics pipeline, a next-gen version of Infinity Cache, and an improved compute unit design.
RDNA 2 GPUs are slowly taking over AMD’s Ryzen APUs, which previously used Vega GPUs, on both desktops and laptops, but RDNA 3 would take over in the gaming GPU space — and presumably, on APUs as well down the road.
We’ll know more about these GPUs once AMD’s event comes around, but NVIDIA might have reasons to worry.
Source: AMD
